Pass4sure Cisco 700-765 Dumps
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Sample Questions
700-765 Sample Question 1
How do AMP's device trajectory capabilities help address customers' breach remediation issues?
A. It tracks file behavior across the network to see which devices it enters and exits
B. It analyzes the data from suspicious files to provide a new level of threat intelligence
C. It searches for potential threats based on identified activities and behaviors
D. It determines the scope and cause of an outbreak and tracks suspicious files
ANSWER : A
700-765 Sample Question 2
Which Cisco NGIPS capability provides control over users, applications. devices, threats, and provides insights to network vulnerabilities?
A. global threat intelligence
B. advanced threat protection and rapid remediation
C. contextual awareness
D. security automation
ANSWER : B
700-765 Sample Question 3
How does the AMP Module of AnyConnect help protect customers networks?
A. AMP can be launched from AnyConnect and deliver endpoint protection before traffic is tunneled to access the customer's network
B. AMP is a unified agent that combines posture check and authentication across wired, wireless, and VPN networks
C. AMP tracks malicious files as it travels through networks and devices
D. AMP provides highly secure access for select enterprise mobile applications
ANSWER : C
700-765 Sample Question 4
How do AMP file trajectory capabilities help customers deal with malware?
A. tracks suspicious fie across the network to determine the scope of an outbreak
B. regulates device access to malicious files on the network
C. eliminates malicious files from company and personal devices
D. tracks a file before it enters the network
ANSWER : A
700-765 Sample Question 5
Which two attack vectors are protected by DNS-Layer security? (Choose two.)
A. Voicemail
B. Control layer
C. Email
D. Cloud
E. Endpoints
ANSWER : D,E
700-765 Sample Question 6
In the Local Data Center Edge use case, which capabilities are provided by NGFW & NGIPS?
A. Identity Services Engine
B. Reduced attack surface of the on-premises datacenter
C. Platform exchange grid
D. File Retrospection and Trajectory
ANSWER : B
700-765 Sample Question 7
Which Tetration feature enforces consistent allow list policy access on premises data centers and pubic clouds to enable zero trust using application segmentation?
A. application access control
B. trusted access segmentation
C. automatic block listing
D. Enable a zero-trust model
ANSWER : D
700-765 Sample Question 8
Which attack vector is protected by Email Security?
A. Endpoints
B. Voicemail
C. Mobile
D. Web
ANSWER : A
700-765 Sample Question 9
Which Web Security feature allows employees to utilize web applications while also having the ability to bock or monitor problematic applications?
A. Realtime Application Sandboxing
B. Application Phishing
C. Application Visibility and Control
D. Layered Scanning and Control
ANSWER : C
700-765 Sample Question 10
Which two attack vectors are protected by Next Gen IPS?(Choose two)
A. Corporate WAN
B. Cloud
C. Voicemail
D. Endpoints
E. Email
ANSWER : A,B
700-765 Sample Question 11
What feature of web security filters websites based on who what where, how, and when to assign a website a score?
A. Sandbox Filtering
B. Reputation Filtering
C. Malware Filtering
D. URL Analytics
ANSWER : D
700-765 Sample Question 12
Which feature of ISE enables ecosystem partner platforms to execute network actions with the Cisco network infrastructure?
A. context-aware access
B. centralized policy management
C. device profiling
D. platform exchange grid
ANSWER : B
700-765 Sample Question 13
Which too products are involved in discovering classifying and verifying profiles? (Choose Two)
A. Industrial Network Director
B. Duo
C. Cisco Security Connector
D. Advanced Malware Protection
E. Identity Services Engine
ANSWER : B,E
700-765 Sample Question 14
Which management platform helps strengthen security posture by enabling uniform policy deployment, uncovering and remediating unplanned changes, and extends protection to the application layer?
A. Firepower Management Center
B. Cisco Defense Orchestrator
C. Firepower Policy Manager
D. Firepower Device Manager
ANSWER : A
